chrisde
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Post by chrisde on Jul 22, 2013 9:21:15 GMT
Oh, and if you find a source, get two of them, you know, for backup =)
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chrisde
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Post by chrisde on Jul 20, 2013 22:30:41 GMT
Helloo!  |
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chrisde
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Post by chrisde on Jul 20, 2013 22:28:38 GMT
Zis Jerman has no aferrshiun to ize! Zo zere!
Welcome to the nice folk of aaec, fistofsouth =)
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chrisde
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Post by chrisde on Jul 18, 2013 13:03:28 GMT
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chrisde
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Post by chrisde on Jul 18, 2013 11:55:53 GMT
Hmm, I have at least 2 or 3 in reach at all times. - A Vanilla Custard type, but this starts to get tiresome, I might drop it for a couple of weeks - An Absinthe type (Either my own brew from DV Absinthe 15%, Totally Wicked Gold Standard blackcurrant 5%, Dark Burner Lemon 0,5%) or this one: liquid-nrw.de/Liquids/Erste-Sahne/Signature/Radioactiv.html (Sorry, site is German) - A simple spearmint and menthol type, usually just 3% Inawera Spearmint and 1% menthol from crystals For "emergency use", i.e. I don't have much time to vape and need a fix, or I am thinking about cigarettes, I have 45mg RY4 Nutzilla Bite Extra from F'Arts UK. My normal vape is around 10mg to 18mg, VG mostly. |
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chrisde
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Post by chrisde on Jul 11, 2013 16:59:03 GMT
The directive is not thought through, it is open to anything. The intention of it is, of course, to prohibit anything that can be used to vaporise nicotine liquid and the nicotine liquid itself, so that anything we already have would then be illegal.
How that might work out is up to the individual member states. In Germany we have two different regulations: The Arzneimittelgesetz (medication law according to 2001/83/EG, the one mentioned in the TPD) and the Medizinproduktegesetz (according to 90/385/EWG, 93/42/EWG and 98/79/EG as the core and 2003/32/EG, 2005/50/EG and 2007/47/EG as amendments for physical items meant to help heal a person, like inhalers, wheelchairs, bandages, syringes, you get the idea).
Basically any item that is used to apply a medicine needs a license as well.
On those grounds our customs used to seize atomizers that were imported from China, two or three years ago.
Both types of licenses are issued by the same federal agency - the BfArM (Bundesinstitut für Arzneimittel und Medizinprodukte) - this is analog to your MHRA I would think. The BfArM has a bad track record of trying to medicalise vaping products in the past, and they work closely with the source of all this stuff - the DKFZ (Deutsches Krebsforschungszentrum), which is connected to the WHO.
So, to try and answer the question - if they get their way, all that we are used to using will be illegal. It might well be that it can not be enforced, but I am sure they will try their best in Germany.
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chrisde
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Post by chrisde on Jul 7, 2013 14:51:30 GMT
The hunt for the right juice is a real problem. Maybe you can find other vapers around (Try the user map) and try what they have? Maybe a vape meet somewhere? Maybe a shop on a highstreet somewhere that offers taste samples? It is worth the time even if it takes an hour to get there.
We vapers are a helpful bunch, I am sure that's the same all over the world.
Tobacco flavoured e-liquid is an obvious first choice, but there is so much more in vaping, you just need to find it.
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chrisde
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Post by chrisde on Jul 5, 2013 19:20:50 GMT
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chrisde
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Post by chrisde on Jul 5, 2013 15:58:12 GMT
Shifting things into the present avoids most of the complexity a language might have around timing or angle of view. Some language teachers completely ignore the past and the future for language crash courses. For the most part, the result is still understandable communication, but it is much simpler to learn.
I wouldn't expect it from someone in their own language, though.
Basically it's the step after the "I hunger" "You name?" "I not buy thing" level.
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chrisde
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Post by chrisde on Jul 5, 2013 14:28:27 GMT
If I understand that correctly, the "if clause" or conditional in that example is "If X had happened" and there should be no "would" in there, as in "If X would have happened". And yes, that's the core of the original question.
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chrisde
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Post by chrisde on Jul 5, 2013 12:37:18 GMT
forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=148123-+**//-There has been some discussion there... The consensus seems to be that 'would' is used in order to be more polite. Languages are so fascinating. I cite as an example how very polite I found Norwegians and yet they have no word for 'please'. I believe there was a suggestion fairly recently that we abolish the apostrophe..... I think you should relax a little about using them (apostrophes) as contractions, in conversation at least. You had no problem using '' Thanks a lot'' which is perfectly acceptable but not grammatically correct....  I think of "Thanks a lot" as "A lot of thanks to you" - but it might be just wrong. Thank you for letting me know =) And yes, languages are indeed fascinating! |
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chrisde
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Post by chrisde on Jul 5, 2013 12:25:15 GMT
Jen Thanks a lot. Looks like I need to dig a bit deeper into the language differences between US and UK. The differences can be huge, and diverging ever more quickly. I read somewhere that if it wasn't for TV and movies Brits, Americans and Australians would hardly understand each other by now. An American would leave their apartment, take the elevator down to the sidewalk, step into their car and head for the freeway. A Brit would leave their flat, take the lift down to the pavement, step in their car and head for the motorway. My kids (well, 20-somethings) were brought up on Sesame Street and MTV. They use closets and go to the movies where as we still use cupboards and visit the cinema! Ah, the old question: Why do you park on a driveway and drive on a parkway? From the outside the differences between written UK and US English don't appear to be too huge. Sure, some words are different, but usually still mutually understandable. My difficulty lies more in understanding spoken language. I was quite embarrassed when I was in Scotland and I simply couldn't understand that old man trying to tell me his war stories and I needed another local to translate for me. I was lucky, though, because the old soldier didn't recognize the license plate on my motorcycle and my translator didn't tell him =) |
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chrisde
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Post by chrisde on Jul 5, 2013 12:04:28 GMT
Ah yes, that helped, thanks.
It's different in German, where the apostrophe is virtually unused unless someone imports it from the US of A - and mostly wrong, too, using the apostrophe to indicate a plural. That really hurts.
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chrisde
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Post by chrisde on Jul 5, 2013 11:39:59 GMT
I think your on the wrong forum. You are confusing vapers with teachers. Yes, maybe I am in the wrong forum, but I am in the off topic area =) *hug* Jen Thanks a lot. Looks like I need to dig a bit deeper into the language differences between US and UK. |
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Post by chrisde on Jul 5, 2013 11:27:05 GMT
I know that my English is good enough to be understood - but there are two cases that I usually try to avoid, because I am not sure about their implications and how British English speakers understand them.
The first puzzle is the apostrophe - "Angie's arm", "Britta's Bar", "Chris' cryptic conundrum" work fine to describe ownership or source. Now the possessive "its", "hers", "his" don't use the apostrophe and that might just be because writing "he's" instead of "his" looks wrong and would probably be pronounced differently or be understood as "he is". And that is the other side of the coin:
I always hesitate to use "he's" or "that's" or "it's" instead of "she is", "that has" or "it is" because I read the apostrophe as an indication of possession and at that point I just spell it out and use "it is" instead of "it's".
I understand that the apostrophe will serve as a short form of "is" or "has" as well as indicating who owns what, but how does it come across to not use it? Does it sound silly? Obnoxious? Old? Strange? Alien? I may be all of the above.
My second question revolves around a simple rule that my English teacher ingrained into me and I always doubted: "No would in an if clause!". If you knew my English teacher, whos (whose?, who's?) name meant "failure" if translated (Hello Mister Scheiter), would you agree? Or would you object to that statement if asked? Is there such a rule anywhere? If not, what would he have meant?
Thanks for your time =)
Chris
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